All Questions

Chapter 1  

2) E-business is limited to electronic activity conducted over the Internet. – False

3) One of the significant changes in IT governance is the shift to a centralized IS executive decision making process. – True

6) Outsourcing IT services is always a long-term commitment. – False

7) Intellectual capital is a synonym for knowledge. – True

9) Data management has changed over the years to include graphics, animation, and video. – True

11) Knowledge-based activities are designed to handle large volumes of transactions. – False

20) The most exciting developments in telecommunications technology is fiber optics. – False

21. Which of the following is not a major trend in the management of information technology?

A) outsourcing

B) IT governance

C) shift toward application delivery

D) All of the above

24) A web of relationships surrounding one or two companies is known as a(n):

A) e-enablement network.

B) ecosystem.

C) e-commerce transaction.

D) None of the above

27) Knowledge that people have but cannot be easily explained to others is referred to as:

A) tacit knowledge.

B) explicit knowledge.

C) illicit knowledge.

D) artificial knowledge.

29) Trends in computer hardware are headed toward:

A) increasing distribution.

B) increasing centralization.

C) increasing IT control.

D) None of the above

30) Trends in computer software are headed towards:

A) increasing use of purchased software.

B) increasing network-centricity.

C) increased end-user computing.

D) All of the above

31) Trends in data are headed towards:

A) emphasis on application data files.

B) emphasis on knowledge management.

C) emphasis on data reduction.

D) All of the above

36) The most exciting developments in telecommunications technology is:

A) wireless.

B) structured code.

C) Ethernet.

D) fiber optics.

E) Both A and C

38) IT evolution can be described using the four traditional areas of:

A) hardware, applications, operating systems and communication.

B) software, hardware, communication and telecommunications.

C) software, telecommunications, internet and hardware.

D) hardware, software, data, and communication.

Chapter 2   The Top IS Job

3) A recent shift in IS organizations has been towards developing IT computer operations centers. - False

4) Architecture management is one of the biggest issues facing IS organizations in the future. - True

 8) Today’s CIO has an increased emphasis on IT governance than past eras. - True

16) The leadership of CIOSs is no longer limited to IS functions. - True

17) The management of IT in organizations has not changed drastically over the past 50 years. - False

18) Outsourcing has spread widely because companies see value in turning IS functions over to specialist companies. - True

19) It is not reasonable to expect an outsourcing service provider to understand and satisfy all the needs of the organization without active management. - True

24) The traditional set of IS responsibilities includes all of the following except:

A) managing corporate data.

B) planning systems.

C) identifying opportunities for network expansion.

D) performing system analysis and design.

25) Which of the following has been reduced by the growing capabilities of users?

A) network operations 

B) systems architecture

C) system maintenance 

D) business requirements identification

26) The IS Lite model suggests that today’s IS department should concentrate on:

A) driving innovation. 

B) managing supplier and user relationships.

C) developing website content. 

D) Both A and B

29) The role of the IS executive in the ________ was that of being an operational manager of IS.

A) mainframe era

B) distributed era 

C) Web era

D) None of the above 

30) The role of the IS executive in the ________ was to align IT with the business.

A) mainframe era 

B) distributed era

C) Web era 

D) None of the above

33) Which of the following is a method that a CIO could use to learn more about the business?

A) sponsor weekly briefings 

B) read industry publications

C) partner with a line executive 

D) All of the above

34) The assignment of decision rights and the accountability framework to encourage desirable behavior in the use of IT is referred to as:

A) knowledge management. 

B) IT governance.

C) strategic alignment. 

D) None of the above

35) Which type of risk should be addressed by project managers within their project proposals?

A) risk that the project will fail 

B) risk of not doing the project

C) risk that it is the wrong project for what is trying to be achieved 

D) All of the above

37) Governance differs from management in that:

A) governance is about why decisions are made, whereas management is about deciding who makes decisions.

B) governance is about when decisions are made, whereas management is about deciding why decisions are made.

C) governance is about making decisions once decision rights have been assigned, whereas management is about deciding who makes decisions.

D) governance is about deciding who makes decisions, whereas management is about making decisions once decision rights have been assigned.

38) The type of governance arrangement where rights are shared by C-level executives and one other tier of the business hierarchy, such as business-unit presidents is called:

A) Anarchy.

B) Duopoly.

C) Federal.

D) Business Monarchy.

39) The type of governance arrangement where one IT group and one business group share a right is called:

A) Anarchy.

B) Duopoly.

C) Federal.

D) Business Monarchy.

Chapter 3   Strategic Uses of Information Technology

4) According to Porter, the only way to sustain advantage through the Internet is to create a distinct value chain that offers unique value. - True - 102

5) An intranet is a closed system that utilizes Internet technologies to service employees and customers of an organization. - False - 107 – Employees only

8) Electronic tenders are an extension of the computational capabilities of a computer. -False - 116 – Allow Access to Products

9) An electronic tender is an electronic communication capability in a product or service that allows that product or service to be paid for by another computer. - False - 119 – Tended to, not paid.

10) The Internet has allowed increased focus on CRM. - True - 117

12) Close integration is when one party provides another party with ad hoc access to its internal information. - False - 122

13) In tight integration, two parties share at least one business process. - True - 122

14) A demand-pull business model is a customer-centric model that initiates activities after a customer’s order has been placed. - True - 125

16) End-user computing is an example of strategic information systems use that works inward. – ?

17) Since the 1990’s, strategic use of information systems has emphasized linking companies to suppliers, customers, and other parties in one’s value chain. - False - 100 – 2000′s

20) In tight business-to-business e-business integration, two parties exchange information in a formal manner. - False - Close Integration
21) Which strategic use of the Internet is no longer in use?
A) business-to-employee 
B) business-to-consumer
C) business-to-business
D) All of the above are still in use.

22) According to Michael Porter, the way to sustain advantage through the Internet is to:

A) create a distinct value chain.

B) create a distinct demand chain. 

C) create a distinct knowledge chain.

D) None of the above 

25) A(n) ________ is an electronic communication capability in a product or service that allows that product or service to be tended.

A) electronic transmission 

B) EDI 

C) electronic tender

D) None of the above 

34) Strategic Uses of Information Systems include: – Page 99

A) Working Outward, Working Inward, and Working Across.

B) Working Outward, Working Inward, and Working Between.

C) Working Outward, Working Inward, and Working Around.

D) Working Between, Working Across and Working Around.

35) In ________ business-to-business e-business integration, two parties share at least one business process as partners. – Page 122

A) loose

B) merged

C) close

D) tight

36) In ________ business-to-business e-business integration, two parties exchange information in a formal manner. – Page 122

A) loose

B) merged

C) close

D) tight

37) When e-business applications run over a public network:

A) access costs are drastically reduced.

B) communications costs are drastically reduced.

C) application costs are drastically reduced.

D) training costs are drastically reduced.

E) All of the above

39) Which of the following is not considered a strategic uses of IT in business? – Page 104

A) business-to-employee

B) business-to-government

C) business-to-customer

D) business-to-business

Chapter 4 - Information Systems Planning
1) Planning is the development of a view of the future to make better decisions in the future. - False
2) Planning is defined as stating the direction you want to go and how you want to get there. - False

3) Operational plans are usually a year or less in duration. - True

4) Strategic plans present a vision of the organization and are the primary responsibility of senior management. - True

5) Tactical plans are usually developed by the CIO and involve project selection and resource allocation. - False

6) IT planning needs to be a continuous process because technology changes so quickly. - True - Page 134

9) The contagion stage in the Nolan and Gibson growth cycle is the beginning use of a new technology. - False - Early Successes – Page 145

10) A critical success factor is a key area that must go right for an organization to be successful. - True - Page 147

11) Product differentiation is the only strategy that has proven effective in dealing with the competitive forces model. - False - Page 148

12) The third force in the Porter Competitive Forces model is the bargaining power of intermediaries. - False - Suppliers – Page 148

13) The fourth force in the Porter Competitive Forces model is substitute products or services. - True - Page 148

22) Which type of planning is typically performed by line managers?

A) strategic

B) tactical

C) operational

D) linkage analysis

23) Which type of planning is responsible for establishing the vision and business goals of an organization?

A) strategic

B) tactical

C) operational

D) linkage analysis

24) Which of the following is not a reason why systems planning is so difficult?

A) the stable technological environment

B) the need for project portfolios

C) the need to involve all top managers

D) the alignment of business goals and system plans

25) Which of the following is a stage of the Nolan and Gibson growth stage model?

A) Early successes

B) Contagion

C) Integration

D) All of the above

27) Which of the following is true of CSFs?

A) CSFs focus on individual managers and their information needs.

B) CSFs can help identify information systems needs.

C) CSFs define what must go right for an organization to be successful.

D) All of the above

28) Which of the following is not a source for the development of critical success factors?

A) the industry that the company operates in

B) the company itself

C) the political factors of the countries that the organization resides in

D) All of the above

29) Which of the following is not a part of Porter’s Competitive Forces model?

A) threat of new entrants

B) disintermediation

C) bargaining power of suppliers

D) None of the above

30) Which of the following Competitive Forces is impacted by the Internet?

A) substitute products or services

B) bargaining power of buyers

C) intensity of rivalry among competitors

D) All of the above

31) Which strategy is used to deal with Porter’s competitive forces?

A) low cost producer

B) product differentiation

C) focus on a niche segment

D) All of the above

33) Which of the following focuses on adding value to primary and supporting business activities?

A) Linkage Planning Analysis

B) Value Chain Analysis

C) Competitive Forces Model

D) Stages of Growth Model

34) Which of the following focuses on project portfolio management?

A) Linkage Planning Analysis

B) Scenario Planning

C) E-Business Value Matrix

D) Value Chain Analysis

35) The goal of Scenario Planning is:

A) to predict the future.

B) to explore forces that could cause different futures and decide on actions if those forces materialize.

C) Both A and B

D) Neither A nor B

36) Strategic planning is defined as:

A) having a significant impact on an organization.

B) having a significant, long-term impact on an organization.

C) having a significant, long-term impact on the revenue of an organization.

D) having a significant, long-term impact on the growth rate, industry, and revenue of an organization.

37) Which of the following is not part of Porter’s Competitive Analysis Model?

A) governmental regulatory power

B) threat of new market entrants

C) bargaining power of both buyers and suppliers

D) threat of substitute products or services

Chapter 5  - Distributed Systems: The Overall Architecture

2) An IT infrastructure is the implementation of an IT architecture. - True - Page 174

3) The degree to which a system is distributed can be determined solely on the basis of how processors and other devices are connected. - False - Page 175

4) The OSI reference model is mature technology, having been in use with mainframe environments since the 1970s. - False - Page 176 – 1980′s

10) Computer-to-computer use of the Internet is referred to as Web Services. - True - Page 192

13) Web Services refers to software modules that have their own URLs and can be called upon to perform their function via the Internet. - True - Page 192

14) Service-oriented architecture is designed to extract data from one system for use in another. - False - Page 201

17) An  IT architecture  includes the processors, software, databases, electronic links, and data centers, as well as the standards that ensure that the components seamlessly work together. - False - Page 174

18) The Internet has become a global electronic infrastructure at the center of a worldwide distributed system. - True - Page 175

19) A distributed database is a database that is stored in one physical location. - False - Page 176

26) Which of the following is a distributed system classification?

A) host-based hierarchy

B) peer-to-peer based LAN systems

C) hybrid enterprise-wide systems

D) All of the above

31) In a three-tiered architecture, middleware is housed in: – Page 185

A) Tier 0.

B) Tier 1.

C) Tier 2.

D) Tier 3.

32) In a three-tiered architecture, the superserver is in: – Page 185

A) Tier 0.

B) Tier 1.

C) Tier 2.

D) Tier 3.

37) The first distributed system structure was known as: – Page 179

A) host-based hierarchy.

B) client/server.

C) peer-to-peer

D) decentralized stand-alone systems.

38) Three-Tier client-server arrangements consist of: – Page 185

A) networks, specialized servers, and clients.

B) super servers, specialized servers, and clients.

C) super servers, clients and networks.

D) None of the above


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